shouldn't there be some clarification between the active half-life of the hormone itself and the delay caused by the ester?

100mg of test -e goes into your system on january 1st. BUT, the actual hormone isn't even active yet. it has to first make its way into the blood stream and be freed of the ester, correct? at THAT point, it becomes active. it would then be active for a few hours and then start dissipating, correct?

so because the ester results in a delayed release of the testosterone hormone, the half-life is displayed as being 5-6 days but that would then make you assume that 5-6 after THAT the drug would be at 25%, but that makes no sense given what we know about the unesterified testosterone hormone.

or is the calculation including the freeing of the ester, thus saying that typically at the 5-6 day mark half of the test you injected has been freed up.....?

does my question make sense?

Thanks in advance.